A.) Layer transitioning
B.) Flow control
C.) Port number addressing
D.) Reliability
Ans D
TCP uses sequence numbers and acknowledgements to implement reliability.
168 Identify IPX GNS and it's purpose?
A.) Go Network Server - sends a print job to a network server
B.) Get Nearest Server - locate the nearest server
C.) Guaranteed Network Services - allocates resources to users
D.) Get Notes Server - locates Domino Server
Ans B
GNS stands for Get Nearest Server, initiated by a workstation.
169 Identify the true statement regarding subnetting?
A.) Allows for more host address
B.) Borrow bits from the network portion of the address
C.) Allows for unlimited number of networks
D.) Borrow bits from the host portion of the address
Ans D
Subnetting involves borrowing bits for the host portion of the address to be used to subnet addressing.
170 Inverse ARP serves what purpose?
A.) Method for a local router to introduce itself to the remote end of the connection
B.) Broadcast a routing table update
C.) Identify MAC addresses if the IP address is known
D.) Sent every 10 seconds used to verify the Frame Switch is still active
Ans A
Inverse ARP operates in a Frame Relay network so the two end points can identify themselves to each other.
171 Identify 3 characteristics of a MAC address?
A.) Burned into the NIC
B.) 48 bits long
C.) Length is 32 bits
D.) Used to deliver the frame to the end device
E.) Contains a network portion and a host portion
Ans A B D
The MAC address is 48 bits long not 32. It does NOT contain a network and host portion with the address. It is used to deliver the frame to the destination device.
172 Identify 3 IP routing protocols?
A.) RIP
B.) AURP
C.) OSPF
D.) IGRP
E.) ARP
F.) ICMP
Ans A C D
AURP and ICMP are not routing protocols.
173 Identify the type of routing protocol that exchanges entire routing tables at regular intervals?
A.) Link state
B.) Interior gateway protocols
C.) Appletalk routing
D.) Distance vector
Ans D
Distance Vector routing protocols exchange entire routing tables with it's neighbors. Link State routing protocols exchange LSP's to share information regarding the networks they know.
174 Identify the type of hardware required to connect a Token ring network to an Ethernet network?
A.) Repeater
B.) TR-Enet
C.) Router
D.) Token Ring to Ethernet translation hub
Ans C
Routers are used to connect dissimilar networks with different access-methods, like connecting Token Ring to Ethernet.
175 Identify 3 characteristics regarding CDP?
A.) On by default
B.) Shows only directly connected neighbors
C.) Requires IP or IPX
D.) 60 second update interval by default
E.) 30 second updates interval by default
Ans A B D
CDP stands for Cisco Discovery Protocol. It is used to discover directly connected neighbors, it is on by default and has a 60 second update interval by default.
176 Identify 2 transport layer protocols?
A.) IP
B.) TCP
C.) CDP
D.) ARP
E.) UDP
Ans B E
TPC and UDP are 2 layer4 Transport protocols.
177 Identify 2 features of X.25?
A.) Supports only IP
B.) Utilizes switched and permanent virtual circuits
C.) Contains minimal flow control and error recovery
D.) Utilizes LAPB as it's data-link protocol
Ans B D
X.25 utilizes LAPB and uses switched and permanent VC's. It supports multiple layer protocols and is heavy laden with error detection and correction mechanisms.
180 Identify the purpose of the Trace command?
A.) Explorer packet transmitting routing information
B.) Test connectivity
C.) Determine the path a packet is taking through the network
D.) Transmits user data when buffers are full
Ans C
The trace command is used to determine the path a packet has taken through the network.
190 Identify the purpose of the TCP 3 step handshake?
A.) Setup a un-reliable connection
B.) Initialize routing tables
C.) Synchronize sequence numbers between hosts
D.) Connection tear down process
Ans C
The 3 step handshake establishes the parameters required for a TCP connection. During the handshake process sequence numbers are synchronized allowing for the end points to properly acknowledge and re-assemble the segments.
191 Identify 2 PPP characteristics?
A.) Is proprietary to Cisco
B.) Supports authentication
C.) Support compression
D.) Run on a multi-access network
Ans B C
PPP supports authentication; PAP and CHAP. It also supports compression; Stacker and Predictor.
192 Which statement is true regarding half duplex?
A.) Only works in a point-to-point configuration
B.) Allows for transmitting and receiving but not a the same time
C.) Allow for transmitting and receiving of data simultaneously
D.) Doubles the bandwidth
Ans B
Half duplex is analogous to a single a lane bridge, it can handle traffic in both directions but no at the same time.
193 Identify the purpose of the wildcard mask?
A.) Match a certain portion of the IP address while ignoring the rest of the address
B.) Determine the class of the IP address
C.) Determine the network portion of an IP address
D.) Hide the host portion of an IP address
Ans A
The purpose of the wildcard mask to match a certain portion of the IP address while ignoring the rest.
194 Identify the OSI layer associated with bits?
A.) Physical
B.) Network
C.) Binary
D.) Data link
Ans A
The Physical layer converts the frames to bits.
195 Identify the type of routing protocol that maintains a topological database of the network?
A.) Topological state
B.) Shortest Path First
C.) Link state
D.) Distance vector
Ans C
Link State routing protocols maintain a database that lists all the networks in the internetwork.
196 Identify the 3 major functions at layer 3 of the OSI model?
A.) Forwarding process
B.) Logical addressing
C.) End-to-end connections
D.) Path selection
E.) MAC address examination
F.) Network monitoring
Ans A B D
Layer 3 determines the path, forwards the packet and implements software or logical addressing.
197 Identify the 2 rules used when configuring a Distance Vector routing protocol?
A.) Physically connected network(s)
B.) Configure the classful address, no subnets
C.) Enable CDP so neighbors can be detected
D.) Configure all networks in Area0
Ans A B
When configuring a Distance Vector routing protocol only assign the physically connected networks with the classful address only.
198 Identify 3 characteristics of an IP address?
A.) Contains a network portion and a host portion
B.) 32 bits long
C.) Unique to each network
D.) Part of the default Cisco configuration
E.) Referred to as the hardware address
Ans A B C
An IP address is 32 bits long, it is referred as the logical or software address. It contains a network and host portion. Each IP address is unique.
199 Identify 3 feature of access-lists?
A.) Implicit deny will deny any packets not matched
B.) Processed sequentially from bottom to top
C.) Processed sequentially from top to bottom
D.) If a packet is denied it would be tested against the remaining statements in the access-list
E.) Once a match is made the packet is either denied or permitted
F.) Enabled on all interfaces by default
Ans A C E
Access-list are processed from top to bottom, once a match occurs the packet is either denied or permitted and is no longer tested and if no match occurs the packet is denied via the implicit deny.
200 Which OSI layer performs code conversion, code formatting and encryption?
A.) Physical
B.) Data-Link
C.) Application
D.) Transport
E.) Presentation
F.) Network
Ans E
Layer 6 the Presentation layers performs this function.
201 Identify the 3 methods routers learn paths to destinations?
A.) Dynamic routing
B.) None of the above, configured by default
C.) Default routes
D.) Administrative distance
E.) Static routes
Ans A C E
Routers can learn paths via 3 different sources; static routes, dynamic routing protocols (i.e. RIP) and default routes.
202 Identify the purpose of the following command 'ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.0.1'
A.) Enabling a dynamic routing protocol
B.) Creating a static route to the 10.1.0.0 network
C.) Teaches the router about the distant network 192.168.100.0 and how it can be reached via 10.1.0.1
D.) Assigning the IP address 192.168.100.0 to an interface
Ans C
A static routes teaches the router about a distant network and the next hop to reach that network. Command syntax:
ip route network-address subnet-mask next-hop-address
203 Based upon the 1st octet rule identify the range for a Class A address?
A.) 1 - 126
B.) 192 - 223
C.) 128 - 191
D.) 1 - 191
Ans A
Class A address has the 1st octet between 1 - 126. Class B between 128 - 191 and Class C between 192 - 223.
204 What does a Standard IP Access-list use as test criteria?
A.) IP source address
B.) IP source and destination address, protocol numbers and port numbers
C.) IPX source and destination address
D.) Source MAC address
Ans A
Standard IP access list use only source address.
205 What is the function of the Transport layer and which protocols reside there?
A.) MAC addressing - IP
B.) Interhost communication - SQL, NFS
C.) Best effort Packet delivery - TCP, UDP
D.) End-to-end connections - TCP, UDP
Ans D
Layer 4, the Transport layer, is responsible for end-to-end connections. The two TCP/IP protocols that reside there are TCP and UDP.
206 Identify the 3 Internet layer IP protocols?
A.) NetBios
B.) IPX
C.) ARP
D.) IP
E.) RARP
Ans C D E
NetBios and IPX are not layer 3 IP protocols. IP - Internet Protocol, ARP - Address Resolution Protocol and RARP - Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.
207 IPX routing updates occur how often?
A.) Every 30 seconds
B.) Every 60 seconds
C.) Only as needed
D.) When the remote router asks for an update
Ans B
IPX RIP updates are exchanged every 60 seconds.
208 Identify 3 methods not used to prevent routing loops?
A.) Holddown timers
B.) Sequence numbers
C.) Triggered updates
D.) Split horizon
E.) Area hierarchies
F.) Order of router startup
Ans B E F
Area hierarchies, sequence numbers and order of router startup all relate to Link State routing protocols which do NOT incur routing loops.
209 Identify the hardware component that stores the bootstrap program?
A.) ROM
B.) NVRAM
C.) Booter load
D.) RAM
E.) Flash
Ans A
ROM contains the boot strap code.
210 Which OSI layer provides mechanical, electrical, procedural for activating, maintaining physical link?
A.) Presentation
B.) Network
C.) Application
D.) Physical
E.) Transport
F.) Data-Link
Ans D
Layer 1 the Physical layer performs this function.
211 Identify 2 characteristics of PPP?
A.) Uses LLC to establish the link
B.) Default serial encapsulation
C.) Support multiple layer 3 protocols
D.) Offers two types of authentication; PAP and CHAP
Ans C D
PPP is not the default encapsulation and uses LCP not LLC to establish the link. It support multiple layer 3 protocols and supports authentication.
212 Identify 3 characteristics of a connection oriented protocol?
A.) Path determination
B.) Flow control
C.) Acknowledgements
D.) Uses hop count as metric
E.) 3 step handshake
Ans B C E
Connection oriented protocols must first establish the connection (3 step handshake), employ methods to acknowledge the receipt of data (acknowledgements) and slow down the flow of data if required (flow control).
213 What is the maximum hop count for IP RIP?
A.) Infinity
B.) 16
C.) 15
D.) 1
Ans C
15 is the maximum hop count, underscoring the size limitation of RIP.
214 What is Cisco's default encapsulation method on serial interfaces?
A.) ANSI
B.) Cisco
C.) Q933a
D.) HDLC
Ans D
Cisco's implementation of HDLC is only compatible with Cisco routers. It is the default encapsulation type for serial interfaces.
215 Which of the following is a characteristic of a switch, but not of a repeater?
A.) Switches forward packets based on the IPX or IP address in the frame
B.) Switches forward packets based on the IP address in the frame
C.) Switches forward packets based on the MAC address in the frame
D.) Switches forward packets based only on the IP address in the packet
Ans C
A repeater regenerates the signal it receives, a switch makes decisions based upon MAC addresses to determine whether a frame should be forwarded. Repeaters forward all packets.
216 Ping uses which Internet layer protocol?
A.) RARP
B.) ICMP
C.) ARP
D.) FTP
Ans B
Internet Control Message Protocol - ICMP is a management protocol and messaging service provider for IP. Its messages are carried as IP datagrams.
ICMP is used in the following events:
Destination Unreachable - If a router cannot send an IP packet any further, it uses an ICMP echo to send a message back to the sender notifying it that the remote node is unreachable.
Buffer Full - If a routers memory buffer is full ICMP will send out a message to the originator.
Hops - Each IP datagram is assigned a path. This consists of hops. If it goes through the maximum number of hops, the packet is discarded and the discarding router sends an ICMP echo to the host.
Ping - Ping use ICMP echo message to check connectivity.
217 Which is true regarding store-and-forward switching method?
A.) Latency varies depending on frame-length
B.) Latency is constant
C.) It is default for all Cisco switches
D.) It only reads the destination hardware address before forwarding the frame
Ans A
Store-and-Forward switching copies the entire frame into its buffer and computes the CRC. If a CRC error is detected, the frame is discarded, or if the frame is a runt (less than 64 bytes including the CRC) or a giant (more than 1518 bytes including the CRC). The LAN switch then looks up the destination address in its switching table and determines the outgoing interface. The frame is then forwarded to the outgoing interface. Cisco Catalyst 5000 switches uses the Store-and-Forward method. The problem with Store-and-Forward switching is latency is increased. Latency also varies with the size of the frame. The larger the frame, the more latency associated. This of course is due to the fact that the entire frame is copied into its buffer before being forwarded.
218 Which three of the following are true statements about connection-oriented sessions?
A.) The segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception
B.) Any segments not acknowledged the are retransmitted by the receiver
C.) A manageable data flow is maintained in order to avoid congestion, overloading and loss of any data
D.) Segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination
Ans A C D
Connection-oriented services are useful for transmitting data from applications that are intolerant of delays and packet re-sequencing. FTP and Telnet applications are based on connection-oriented services as well as some voice and video programs. Any segment that is not acknowledged by the received is retransmitted by the sender.
219 What does a metric of 16 hops represent when using RIP?
A.) Number of hops to the destination
B.) Destination unreachable
C.) Number of routers
D.) Bandwidth
Ans B
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a distance vector routing protocol that used hop count as its metric. The maximum hop count is 15, 16 hops is considered unreachable. RIP updates are broadcast every 30 seconds by default. RIP has an administrative distance of 120.
220 You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. Which two factors must you consider when you define the subnet mask for the network?
A.) The location of DHCP servers
B.) The volume of traffic on each subnet
C.) The number of subnets on the network
D.) The location of the default gateway
E.) The number of host IDs on each subnet
Ans C E
When determining which subnet mask to use, you must determine how many hosts and how many subnets are required.
221 What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
A.) TCP is connection-oriented; UDP uses acknowledgements only
B.) TCP is connection-oriented; UDP is connectionless
C.) Both TCP and UDP are connection-oriented, but only TCP uses windowing
D.) TCP and UDP both have sequencing, but UDP is connectionless
The correct answer(s): B
TCP provides guaranteed connection oriented delivery of packets, UDP does not.
222 What does the 'S' mean when looking at the routing table?
A.) Statically connected
B.) Directly connected
C.) Dynamically attached
D.) Shutdown route
Ans A
Statically connected routes are those that an administrator has manually entered into the routing table.
223 Why would you use static routing instead of dynamic routing?
A.) When you want automatic updates of the routing tables
B.) All the time
C.) When you have very few routes and want to conserve bandwidth
D.) When you have a gateway of last resort
Ans C
Static routes are typically used when there are very few routes and you want to conserve bandwidth. Since routing protocols are constantly sending their updates across the wire, it can cause a great deal of congestion.
224 On Cisco catalyst 5000 how would you set the second port on the controller in the first slot to full duplex?
A.) Set port duplex 1/1 full
B.) Set port duplex 1/2 full
C.) Set port duplex 0/1 full
D.) Set port duplex 0/2 full
Ans B
The syntax is: set type duplex slot/port
225 What does the acronym ARP stand for?
A.) Address Resolution Phase
B.) ARP Resolution Protocol
C.) Address Resolution Protocol
D.) Address Recall Protocol
Ans C
The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolved IP addresses to MAC addresses.
226 What is the default encapsulation of Netware 3.12?
A.) Ethernet_II
B.) 802.5
C.) 802.2
D.) 802.3
Ans C
The 802.2 Frame Type is the default frame-type for Netware 3.12.
227 Regarding frame relay, which of the following statements are true?
A.) You must use ANSI encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment
B.) You must use IETF encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment
C.) You must use Q.933a encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment
D.) You must use Cisco encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment
Ans B
Cisco's encapsulation for Frame relay is proprietary. To communicate with non-Cisco equipment when using frame-relay encapsulation, the IETF method must be used.
228 What is required to support full-duplex Ethernet?
A.) Multiple paths between multiple stations on a link
B.) Automatic sensing operation by all connected stations
C.) Loopback and collision detection disabled
D.) Full-duplex NIC cards
Ans C D
Full duplex ethernet requires that the NIC supports full-duplex, and loopback and collision detection are disabled.
229 Which layer is responsible for determining if sufficient resources for the intended communication exists?
A.) Application
B.) Network
C.) Session
D.) Presentation
E.) Transport
Ans A
The Application layer is responsible for determining if sufficient resources for the intended communication exists.
230 What are the 2 functions of the Data Link Mac layer?
A.) Handles access to shared media
B.) Manages protocol access to the physical network medium
C.) Provides SAPs for higher level protocols
D.) Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data link layer
Ans B D
Media Access Control (MAC) -The MAC sublayer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. The IEEE MAC specification defines MAC addresses, which allow multiple devices to uniquely identify one another at the data link layer.
231 Describe End to End network services: (Choose all that apply)
A.) Best Route selection
B.) Accomplished Segment by Segment, each segment is autonomous
C.) Flow Control & Data Integrity
D.) Best efforts packet delivery
Ans A B C D
All of the above End to End network services.
232 Which of the following provide correct information about a protocol at the transport layer of the OSI model?
A.) UDP - Provides Connectionless datagrams service
B.) TCP - Provides Connection Oriented Services
C.) SMTP - Provides Mail Exchange
D.) IP - Route determination
E.) TCP - Provides Flow Control and Error Checking
F.) FTP - Transfers of Files
Ans A B E
Only TCP and UDP work at the Transport layer of the above choices. IP is a Network layer protocol. SMTP and FTP are application layer protocols.
233 Which protocol works at the Internet layer and is responsible for making routing decisions?
A.) UDP
B.) IP
C.) TCP
D.) ARP
Ans B
Internet Protocol - IP provides routing and a single interface to the upper layers. No upper layer protocol and now lower layer protocol have any functions relating to routing. IP receives segments from the transport layer and fragments them into packets including the hosts IP address.
234 Which layer is responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment, and tear down of virtual circuits?
A.) Session
B.) Network
C.) Physical
D.) Transport
E.) Application
F.) Presentation
Ans D
The Transport layer does the following: Responsible for end-to-end integrity of data transmission. Handles multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment and tear down of virtual circuits. Hides details of network dependent info from the higher layers by providing transparent data transfer. The 'windows' works at this level to control how much information is transferred before an acknowledgement is required.
235 Which of the following are logged when IP access list logging is enabled?
A.) source address
B.) protocol
C.) source port
D.) destination address
E.) access list number
F.) destination port
Ans A B C D E F
All of the above are logged when IP access list logging is enabled.
236 What's the default CDP holdtime in seconds for Cisco routers?
A.) 30 seconds
B.) 180 seconds
C.) 90 seconds
D.) 60 seconds
Ans B
Cisco Discovery Protocol is a proprietary protocol to allow you to access configuration information on other routers and switches with a single command. It uses SNAP at the Data-Link Layer. By default CDP sends out a broadcast every 60 seconds and it holds this information for 180 seconds. CDP is enabled by default.
237 Which two of the following protocols are used at the Transport layer?
A.) ARP
B.) UDP
C.) ICMP
D.) RARP
E.) TCP
F.) BootP
Ans B E
TCP and UDP operate at the Transport layer.
238 LAN stands for which of the following?
A.) Local Area Network
B.) Local Arena Network
C.) Local Area News
D.) Logical Area Network
Ans A
LAN stands for Local Area Network
239 Choose three reasons why the networking industry uses a layered model:
A.) It facilitates systematic troubleshooting
B.) It allows changes in one layer to occur without changing other layers
C.) It allows changes to occur in all layers when changing one protocol
D.) It clarifies how to do it rather than what general function to be done
E.) It clarifies what general function is to be done rather than how to do it
Ans A B E
Why do we have a Layered Model?
1) It reduces complexity
2) Allows for a standardized interface
3) Facilitates modular engineering
4) Ensures interoperable technology
5) Accelerates evolution
6) Simplifies teaching and learning
240 Which layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended communication partner?
A.) Application
B.) Presentation
C.) Transport
D.) Session
E.) Network
Ans A
The Application layer performs the following: Synchronizing sending and receiving applications. Program-to program communication. Identify and establish the availability of the intended communication partner, and determine if sufficient resources exist for the communication. Popular application protocols include WWW, SMTP, EDI, FTP, Telnet, and SNMP
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